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Q135. What domain of educational learning involves growth in feelings or emotions?

Affective

Cognitive

Psychomotor

Perceptive

Q136. The infection preventionist notes an increase in Clostridioides difficile infections (CDI) in the ICU. A Root Cause Analysis (RCA) is scheduled. What is the goal of a Root Cause Analysis?

Proactively identify potential failures.

Identify processes to prevent recurrence.

Determine strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

Educate staff in order to avoid individual blame.

Q137. One of the elements of antibiotic stewardship is controlling antibiotic use. Which of the following BEST describes a closed formulary?

Requires the prescribing physician to obtain some form of approval before the antibiotic will be dispensed.

Automatic switching from broad-spectrum empiric therapy to narrower-spectrum agents.

Practice of rotating two or more classes of formulary drugs on a regular basis.

Limits the number of antibiotics available for physicians to prescribe.

Q138. Which of the following infectious diseases is associated with environmental fungi?

Listeriosis

Hantavirus

Mucormycosis

Campylobacter

The correct answer is C, “Mucormycosis,” as it is the infectious disease associated with environmental fungi.
According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, mucormycosis is caused by fungi belonging to the order Mucorales, which are commonly found in the environment, including soil, decaying organic matter, and contaminated water. These fungi can become opportunistic pathogens, particularly in immunocompromised individuals, leading to severe infections such as rhinocerebral, pulmonary, or cutaneous mucormycosis (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain I:
Identification of Infectious Disease Processes, Competency 1.1 – Identify infectious disease processes).
Environmental exposure, such as inhalation of fungal spores or contact with contaminated materials, is a primary mode of transmission, making it directly linked to environmental fungi.
Option A (Listeriosis) is caused by the bacterium Listeria monocytogenes, typically associated with contaminated food products (e.g., unpasteurized dairy or deli meats) rather than environmental fungi. Option B (Hantavirus) is a viral infection transmitted through contact with rodent excreta, not fungi, and is linked to environmental reservoirs like rodent-infested areas. Option D (Campylobacter) is a bacterial infection caused by Campylobacter species, often associated with undercooked poultry or contaminated water, and is not related to fungi.
The association of mucormycosis with environmental fungi underscores the importance of infection prevention strategies, such as controlling environmental contamination and protecting vulnerable patients, which aligns with CBIC’s focus on identifying and mitigating risks from infectious agents in healthcare settings (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 – Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents). This knowledge is critical for infection preventionists to guide environmental cleaning and patient care protocols.
References: CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain I: Identification of Infectious Disease Processes, Competency 1.1 – Identify infectious disease processes; Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 – Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents.

Q139. A nurse exposed to pertussis develops a mild cough 14 days later. What is the recommended action?

Continue working with a surgical mask.

Exclude from patient care until five days after starting antibiotics.

Initiate post-exposure prophylaxis only if symptoms worsen.

Conduct serologic testing before deciding on work restrictions.

Q140. Surgical site infection (SSI) data for the previous quarter reveal the following numbers. The surgeon with the highest infection rate is Doctor

Brown

Jones.

Smith

White

Q141. There is an influenza epidemic in a community. To prevent transmission of influenza in a facility, the MOST rapidly effective measure an infection preventionist should recommend is to:

Use droplet precautions empirically for all residents suspected to have influenza.

Immediately immunize patient care staff.

Immunize patients and patient care staff.

Notify the local health department.

Q142. When designing a physical construction containment barrier to contain dust as well as potentially infectious microorganisms generated, reduced air pressure in the contained space relative to adjacent occupied spaces results in airflow from the:

Exhaust into the contained work space and then into the clean adjacent space.

Contained work space into the clean adjacent space and then out of the exhaust.

Clean adjacent space into the contained work space and then out the exhaust.

Clean adjacent space into the contained work space and then directly back into the building.

Q143. A patient presents with symptoms of meningitis. Two weeks ago, the patient ate from a cheese and meat tray and developed fever, muscle aches, and nausea the next day. Which of the following infectious agents should an infection preventionist consider as a cause of the patient’s symptoms?

Vibrio cholerae

Campylobacter jejuni

Clostridium perfringens

Listeria monocytogenes

Q144. A hospital wants to launch an alternative care site due to an influx of patients from a mass casualty incident.
An infection preventionist should be engaged to BEST determine:

Optimal medical care being offered.

Staffing of licensed and unlicensed staff.

Measures to keep all individuals healthy.

Requirements for providing direct patient care.

Q145. What rate is expressed by the number of patients who acquire infections over a specified time period divided by the population at risk of acquiring an infection during that time period?

Incidence rate

Disease specific

Point prevalence

Period prevalence

Q146. An infection preventionist (IP) is asked to assist in rewriting policies for insertion and maintenance of IV catheters. Which of the following are acceptable for use in site preparation?

Chloroxylenol or acetone

Povidone-iodine or para-chloro-meta-xylenol (PCMX)

Alcohol or chlorhexidine

Benzalkonium chloride or chlorhexidine

Q147. The Environmental Services department is purchasing a new disinfectant that is an approved hospital disinfectant with no tuberculocidal claim. This product is appropriate for cleaning which of the following items?

Laryngoscope blades

Blood pressure cuff

Respiratory therapy equipment

Ultrasound probe

Q148. To understand how their hospital-acquired infection rates compare to other health care settings, an infection preventionist (IP) plans to use benchmarking.
Which of the following criteria is important to ensure accurate benchmarking of surveillance data?

Data collectors are trained on how to collect data

Collecting data on a small population lo ensure accuracy of data collection

Denominator rates are selected based on an organizational risk assessment

Using case definitions that are adjusted for the patient population being studied

Q149. During an outbreak of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), the infection preventionist should FIRST:

Review adherence to ventilator bundle elements.

Implement preemptive antibiotic therapy in all ventilated patients.

Isolate all ventilated patients in negative pressure rooms.

Perform bacterial cultures from ventilator circuits.

Q150. Which of the following descriptions accurately describes a single-use medical device?

A device which can be used on a single patient

A device that is sterilized and can be used again on the same patient

A device used on a patient and reprocessed prior to being used again

A device used one time on a patient during a procedure and then discarded

The correct answer is D, “A device used one time on a patient during a procedure and then discarded,” as this accurately describes a single-use medical device. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, a single-use device (SUD), also known as a disposable device, is labeled by the manufacturer for one-time use on a patient and is intended to be discarded afterward to prevent cross-contamination and ensure patient safety. This definition is consistent with regulations from the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), which designate SUDs as devices that should not be reprocessed or reused due to risks of infection, material degradation, or failure to restore sterility (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.3 – Ensure safe reprocessing of medical equipment). Examples include certain syringes, catheters, and gloves, which are designed for single use to eliminate the risk of healthcare-associated infections (HAIs).
Option A (a device which can be used on a single patient) is too vague and could apply to both single-use and reusable devices, as reusable devices are also often used on a single patient per procedure before reprocessing.
Option B (a device that is sterilized and can be used again on the same patient) describes a reusable device, not a single-use device, as sterilization and reuse are not permitted for SUDs. Option C (a device used on a patient and reprocessed prior to being used again) refers to a reusable device that undergoes reprocessing (e.
g., sterilization), which is explicitly prohibited for SUDs under manufacturer and regulatory guidelines.
The focus on discarding after one use aligns with CBIC’s emphasis on preventing infection through adherence to device labeling and safe reprocessing practices, ensuring that healthcare facilities avoid the risks associated with improper reuse of SUDs (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.5 – Evaluate the environment for infection risks). This practice is critical to maintaining a sterile and safe healthcare environment.
References: CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competencies 3.3 – Ensure safe reprocessing of medical equipment, 3.5 – Evaluate the environment for infection risks. FDA Guidance on Reprocessing of Single-Use Devices, 2016.

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Topic	Details
Topic 1	Deploy: Discern the suitable deployment process pertinent to the Contact Center. Subsequently, document channel-specific cut-over requirements based on the feature configurations provided.
Topic 2	Implement: This section deals with setting up the fundamental Contact Center functionalities and features. Following this, in alignment with the complete design, configure and authenticate the email functionality, ensuring its seamless operation. Similarly, based on specific scenarios, configure and verify the functionality of voice services.
Topic 3	Discovery: This section deals with a customer use case, and initiates interviews to delineate personas and stakeholders involved.
Topic 4	Design: Deals with the Contact Center functionalities with the stipulated requirements. Subsequently, when presented with business requirements, devise scalable and maintainable solutions for the Contact Center, adhering to standard data models.

Topic	Details
Topic 1	NGFW and SASE Solution Functionality: This part assesses the knowledge of firewall administrators and network architects on the functions of various Palo Alto Networks firewalls including Cloud NGFWs, PA-Series, CN-Series, and VM-Series. It covers perimeter and core security, zone security and segmentation, high availability, security and NAT policy implementation, as well as monitoring and logging. Additionally, it includes the functionality of Prisma SD-WAN with WAN optimization, path and NAT policies, zone-based firewall, and monitoring, plus Prisma Access features such as remote user and network configuration, application access, policy enforcement, and logging. It also evaluates options for managing Strata and SASE solutions through Panorama and Strata Cloud Manager.
Topic 2	GFW and SASE Solution Maintenance and Configuration: This domain evaluates the skills of network security administrators in maintaining and configuring Palo Alto Networks hardware firewalls, VM-Series, CN-Series, and Cloud NGFWs. It includes managing security policies, profiles, updates, and upgrades. It also covers adding, configuring, and maintaining Prisma SD-WAN including initial setup, pathing, monitoring, and logging. Maintaining and configuring Prisma Access with security policies, profiles, updates, upgrades, and monitoring is also assessed.
Topic 3	Platform Solutions, Services, and Tools: This section measures the expertise of security engineers and platform administrators in Palo Alto Networks NGFW and Prisma SASE products. It involves creating security and NAT policies, configuring Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) such as security profiles, User-ID and App-ID, decryption, and monitoring. It also covers the application of CDSS for IoT security, Enterprise Data Loss Prevention, SaaS Security, SD-WAN, GlobalProtect, Advanced WildFire, Threat Prevention, URL Filtering, and DNS security. Furthermore, it includes aligning AIOps with best practices through administration, dashboards, and Best Practice Assessments.
Topic 4	Infrastructure Management and CDSS: This section tests the abilities of security operations specialists and infrastructure managers in maintaining and configuring Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) including security policies, profiles, and updates. It includes managing IoT security with device IDs and monitoring, as well as Enterprise Data Loss Prevention and SaaS Security focusing on data encryption, access control, and logging. It also covers maintenance and configuration of Strata Cloud Manager and Panorama for network security environments including supported products, device addition, reporting, and configuration management.

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Legal and Regulatory: This domain focuses on ensuring compliance with healthcare laws and regulations, protecting patient information, managing reporting requirements, and supporting accreditation and regulatory responses.
Topic 2	Clinical Patient Safety: This domain focuses on improving patient safety by promoting a safety culture, managing incident reporting, educating staff and patients, addressing ethical concerns, and implementing corrective actions to reduce risks and prevent harm.
Topic 3	Risk Financing: This domain covers managing financial risks through insurance programs, claims coordination, loss analysis, and developing strategies to reduce financial exposure.
Topic 4	Healthcare Operations: This domain involves managing operational risk activities such as conducting risk assessments, developing policies, coordinating risk programs, supervising staff, and supporting patient safety initiatives.
Topic 5	Claims and Litigation: This domain focuses on handling potential claims and legal cases, including claim reporting, litigation support, legal documentation management, and analyzing claims data to understand risk exposure.

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PMI PMI-CPMAI Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Matching AI with Business Needs (Phase I): This section of the exam measures the skills of a Business Analyst and covers how to evaluate whether AI is the right fit for a specific organizational problem. It focuses on identifying real business needs, checking feasibility, estimating return on investment, and defining a scope that avoids unrealistic expectations. The section ensures that learners can translate business objectives into AI project goals that are clear, achievable, and supported by measurable outcomes.
Topic 2	Operationalizing AI (Phase VI): This section of the exam measures the skills of an AI Operations Specialist and covers how to integrate AI systems into real production environments. It highlights the importance of governance, oversight, and the continuous improvement cycle that keeps AI systems stable and effective over time. The section prepares learners to manage long term AI operation while supporting responsible adoption across the organization.
Topic 3	The Need for AI Project Management: This section of the exam measures the skills of an AI Project Manager and covers why many AI initiatives fail without the right structure, oversight, and delivery approach. It explains the role of iterative project cycles in reducing risk, managing uncertainty, and ensuring that AI solutions stay aligned with business expectations. It highlights how the CPMAI methodology supports responsible and effective project execution, helping candidates understand how to guide AI projects ethically and successfully from planning to delivery.
Topic 4	Testing and Evaluating AI Systems (Phase V): This section of the exam measures the skills of an AI Quality Assurance Specialist and covers how to evaluate AI models before deployment. It explains how to test performance, monitor for drift, and confirm that outputs are consistent, explainable, and aligned with project goals. Candidates learn how to validate models responsibly while maintaining transparency and reliability.}
Topic 5	Iterating Development and Delivery of AI Projects (Phase IV): This section of the exam measures the skills of an AI Developer and covers the practical stages of model creation, training, and refinement. It introduces how iterative development improves accuracy, whether the project involves machine learning models or generative AI solutions. The section ensures that candidates understand how to experiment, validate results, and move models toward production readiness with continuous feedback loops.
Topic 6	Managing Data Preparation Needs for AI Projects (Phase III): This section of the exam measures the skills of a Data Engineer and covers the steps involved in preparing raw data for use in AI models. It outlines the need for quality validation, enrichment techniques, and compliance safeguards to ensure trustworthy inputs. The section reinforces how prepared data contributes to better model performance and stronger project outcomes.

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