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[Aug-2026] Verified EC-COUNCIL Exam Dumps with 112-57 Exam Study Guide

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Q37. Which of the following techniques is defined as the art of hiding data “behind” other data without the target’s knowledge, thereby hiding the existence of the message itself?

 Password cracking

 Artifact wiping

 Steganography

 Program packer

Steganographyis the technique of concealing a messagewithin another seemingly harmless carrier(such as an image, audio file, video, or document) so that theexistence of the hidden message is not apparentto an observer. Digital forensics references distinguish steganography from encryption: encryption scrambles content but usually leaves visible indicators that protected data exists (ciphertext), while steganography aims to make the communication look ordinary, reducing suspicion. In practice, steganographic methods often embed data into redundant or less perceptible parts of the carrier, such as modifying least significant bits in pixel values, altering frequency components in audio, or inserting data into metadata or unused file structures.
The other options do not match the definition.Password crackingis an access technique to recover authentication secrets, not a concealment method.Artifact wipingis an anti-forensics method intended to remove traces (logs, files, slack space remnants), but it does not “hide behind” other data-it destroys or overwrites evidence.Program packerscompress/obfuscate executables to hinder static analysis and detection, but they still produce an executable whose presence is evident; they do not primarily hide messages inside benign files. Therefore, the described “hiding the existence of the message itself” corresponds toSteganography (C).

Q38. Below is the syntax of a command-line utility that displays active TCP connections and ports on which the computer is listening.
netstat [-a] [-e] [-n] [-o] [-p Protocol] [-r] [-s] [Interval]
Identify the netstat parameter that displays active TCP connections and includes the process ID (PID) for each connection.

 [-n]

 [-a]

 [-o]

 [-s]

In Windows forensics and incident response, investigators often need to linknetwork activity(remote IPs, ports, connection states) to theresponsible processto determine whether traffic is legitimate or associated with malware, unauthorized tools, or data exfiltration. The Windowsnetstatutility can enumerate current TCP connections and listening ports, but the key flag that enables attribution to a running program is-o. The-o parameter instructs netstat to include theOwning Process ID (PID)with each connection or listening socket.
Once the PID is known, examiners can correlate it with process listings (e.g., Task Manager,tasklist, memory forensics output) to identify the executable name, path, user context, and parent process-critical steps in reconstructing attacker behavior and persistence.
The other options do not provide PID mapping:-nshows addresses and ports in numeric form (useful for speed and to avoid DNS lookups),-adisplays all connections and listening ports but without PID attribution by itself, and-sshows protocol statistics rather than per-connection ownership. Therefore, the parameter that shows active connectionsandincludes the PID for each is[-o](Option C).

Q39. Which of the following file systems of Windows replaces the first letter of a deleted file name with the hex byte code “e5h”?

 FAT

 FHS

 NTFS

 EFS

InFAT (File Allocation Table)file systems (FAT12/16/32), directory entries are fixed-size records that include an8.3 filename field. When a file is deleted, FAT typically does not immediately erase the file’s content; instead, it marks the directory entry as deleted by replacing thefirst character of the filenamewith the special marker byte0xE5(often written asE5h). This is a key forensic behavior because it means the file’s metadata entry may still be present in the directory table, and the data clusters may remain recoverable until they are reused and overwritten. Examiners can often reconstruct the original filename’s first character only through context or by correlating other artifacts, but the remainder of the directory entry (timestamps, size, starting cluster) can still assist recovery.
The other options do not match this mechanism.NTFSuses Master File Table records and marks deletions differently (file record flags and index changes), not by overwriting the first filename byte with E5h.EFSis an encryption feature layered on NTFS, not a distinct file system deletion marker.FHSis a UNIX/Linux directory layout standard, unrelated to Windows disk structures. Therefore, the correct answer isFAT (A).

Q40. Given below are different steps involved in event correlation.
Event masking
Event aggregation
Root cause analysis
Event filtering
Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in event correlation.

 1–>3–>2–>4

 2–>1–>4–>3

 1–>3–>4–>2

 2–>4–>3–>1

In event correlation (as applied in SOC/SIEM-driven investigations), the workflow typically starts byreducing complexityandnormalizing what “one incident” looks likebefore attempting conclusions about causality.Event aggregation (2)is performed early to combine multiple low-level, related events (for example repeated authentication failures, repeated firewall denies, or multiple IDS hits for the same signature) into higher-level
“grouped” records. This prevents analysts from treating every raw log line as a separate incident and makes correlation computationally and operationally feasible.
Next,event masking (1)suppresses events that are already known to be irrelevant or repetitive in a way that does not add investigative value (for example, routine scheduled scans, approved admin tools, or duplicate alerts already represented in the aggregated set). After masking,event filtering (4)further removes remaining noise using rules, thresholds, whitelists, time windows, or relevance criteria (scope, asset criticality, and known-benign sources), leaving a cleaner dataset that represents probable security-relevant activity.
Only after the dataset is consolidated and noise-reduced doesroot cause analysis (3)become reliable, because RCA depends on a clear chain of correlated events to identify the initiating action and propagation path.
Hence the correct sequence is2 # 1 # 4 # 3 (Option B).

Q41. Which of the following layers of the TCP/IP model serves as the backbone for data flow between two devices in a network and enables peer entities on the source and destination devices to communicate with each other?

 Internet layer

 Network access layer

 Transport layer

 Application layer

In the TCP/IP model, theTransport layeris responsible forend-to-end communication between peer entitieson the source and destination systems. “Peer entities” here refers to the corresponding transport components (and the applications that use them) on two different hosts communicating across a network. This layer forms the practical “backbone” of host-to-host data flow because it provides the mechanisms that allow data to be deliveredfrom one endpoint process to another endpoint processreliably or efficiently, depending on the protocol used.
The Transport layer includes protocols such asTCPandUDP. TCP supports connection-oriented communication with sequencing, acknowledgments, retransmissions, and flow control-features that are fundamental when reconstructing sessions during network forensic investigations (e.g., rebuilding a file transfer or a web session). UDP provides connectionless delivery used by many services where speed is preferred over guaranteed delivery, which is also significant in investigations of DNS, streaming, or certain malware communications.
By contrast, theInternet layerfocuses on logical addressing and routing (IP), theNetwork access layerhandles local delivery on the physical/link network, and theApplication layerprovides user-facing protocols.
Therefore, the layer enabling peer communication between endpoints is theTransport layer (C).

Q42. Which of the following commands can an investigator use to parse GPTs of both types of hard disks, including those formatted with either UEFI or MBR?

 Get-BootSector

 Get-PartitionTable

 Get-ForensicPartitionTable

 Get-GPT

In forensic examinations, investigators must correctly interpret a disk’spartitioning schemebecause it determines where volumes begin, where file systems reside, and how to validate acquisition completeness.
Modern systems may useGPT(commonly associated with UEFI) while legacy systems often useMBR. A practical forensic command therefore needs to detect and parse partition informationregardless of whether the disk uses MBR or GPT, and present the results in a consistent, investigator-friendly output for verification and downstream analysis (e.g., selecting the correct partition offsets for imaging or mounting).
Get-ForensicPartitionTableis designed for exactly this role in forensic PowerShell tooling: it parses partition table structures in a forensically oriented manner and supports disks partitioned usingeither MBR or GPT.
That “forensic” emphasis typically means it reads raw structures directly, reports partition entries and offsets, and helps avoid ambiguity when the protective MBR (present on GPT disks) could confuse simplistic parsers.
By contrast,Get-BootSectortargets boot sector/VBR data rather than the full partition layout;Get-GPTis GPT- specific and does not cover MBR-only disks; andGet-PartitionTableis a more generic label that may not guarantee dual-scheme forensic parsing. Therefore, the correct option isC.

Q43. An organization decided to strengthen the security of its network by studying and analyzing the behavior of attackers. For this purpose, Steven, a security analyst, was instructed to deploy a device to bait attackers.
Steven selected a solution that appears to contain very useful information to lure attackers and find their locations and techniques.
Identify the type of device deployed by Steven in the above scenario.

 Intrusion detection system

 Firewall

 Honeypot

 Router

Ahoneypotis a deliberately deployed decoy system or service designed toattract attackersby appearing valuable or vulnerable, thereby enabling defenders to observe malicious behavior in a controlled manner.
Digital forensics and incident response references describe honeypots as tools forthreat intelligence and evidence collection, because they can record interaction details such as connection sources, exploited services, commands executed, malware dropped, and attempted privilege escalation. This directly matches the scenario: Steven deployed something that “appears to contain very useful information” tolure attackersand help identify theirlocations and techniques. Honeypots are typically instrumented with extensive logging and monitoring, making them especially useful for building timelines, extracting indicators of compromise, and understanding adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures.
The other options do not align with the “bait attackers” goal. AnIDSprimarily detects and alerts on suspicious activity but is not intended to impersonate a valuable target. Afirewallenforces access control rules to block
/allow traffic, not entice attackers. Arouterforwards packets and provides network connectivity; it is not a deception platform. Therefore, the device type described is aHoneypot (C).

Q44. Which of the following network protocols creates secure tunneling through which content obfuscation can be achieved?

 SNMP

 ARP

 SSH

 UDP

SSH (Secure Shell)is specifically designed to provide anencrypted channelover an untrusted network. In digital forensics and incident response, SSH is well known for supportingtunneling/port forwarding, where traffic for another protocol (for example, HTTP, database connections, or remote desktop) is encapsulated inside an SSH session. Because the SSH session encrypts payload data (and can also protect authentication and command content), the tunneled traffic becomesobfuscated to network monitoring toolsthat can only see metadata such as source/destination IPs, port numbers (often TCP/22), timing, and byte counts. This capability is frequently discussed in forensic references as a mechanism that can hinder content inspection and complicate attribution of user actions purely from packet payload analysis.
By contrast,SNMPis primarily for network management and monitoring, not secure tunneling.ARPresolves IP- to-MAC addresses on local networks and does not provide encryption or tunneling.UDPis a transport protocol that can carry data for many applications but provides no built-in security or tunneling features by itself.
Therefore, the protocol that creates secure tunneling enabling content obfuscation isSSH (C).
event logs) to establish user intent and sequence of actions. Therefore, the correct option isBrowsingHistoryView (B).

Q45. Which of the following MAC forensic data components saves file information and related events using a token with a binary structure?

 Command-line inputs

 User account

 Basic Security Module

 Kexts

On macOS, theBasic Security Module (BSM)provides the system’saudit framework, which records security- relevant activity such asfile access, process execution, authentication events, privilege changes, and other system calls. A key forensic characteristic of BSM auditing is that events are written asbinary audit records composed of “tokens.”Each token represents a structured piece of the event (for example: subject/user identity, process ID, command arguments, path, return value, timestamps), and tokens are assembled into complete audit records. Because these audit logs arebinary and tokenized, they are compact, consistent, and designed for reliable parsing and evidentiary reconstruction-important when building timelines of file- related actions and attributing them to specific users and processes.
The other options do not match the “binary token” description.Command-line inputsmay be stored in shell history files but are plain text and not tokenized binary audit records.User accountartifacts (e.g., directory services, plist files) describe identities and settings, not tokenized event logs.Kexts(kernel extensions) are drivers/modules; while they can affect system behavior, they are not the macOS component that stores file
/event records in a binary token format. Therefore, the correct answer isBasic Security Module (C).

Q46. Steve, a professional hacker, attempted to hack Alice’s banking account. To accomplish his goal, Steve used an automated tool to guess Alice’s login credentials. The tool uses a trial-and-error method by attempting all possible combinations of usernames and passwords to determine the valid credentials.
Identify the type of attack initiated by Steve in the above scenario.

 Brute-force attack

 Phishing attack

 Trojan horse attack

 Data manipulation attack

The scenario describes an automated, trial-and-error attempt that triesall possible combinations of usernames and passwordsuntil a correct credential pair is found. This is the defining characteristic of abrute-force attack.
In digital forensics terminology, brute force is a direct password-guessing method that relies on exhaustive attempts (or systematically generated candidates) rather than tricking the user or exploiting a software flaw.
Investigators commonly recognize brute-force activity through artifacts such as repeated authentication failures in security logs, high-frequency login attempts from a single IP or distributed sources, account lockout events, and abnormal spikes in authentication traffic. In banking and web environments, it may also appear as repeated POST requests to login endpoints with varying credential pairs and consistent user-agent patterns, sometimes accompanied by throttling or CAPTCHA triggers.
The other options do not match the described “attempting all possible combinations” behavior.
Phishingobtains credentials by deception (fake emails/sites). ATrojan horsesteals data by running malicious code on the victim’s system.Data manipulationfocuses on altering data integrity rather than credential guessing. Therefore, the correct attack type isBrute-force attack (A).

Q47. Kelvin, a forensic investigator at FinCorp Ltd., was investigating a cybercrime against the company. As part of the investigation process, he needs to recover corrupted and deleted files from a Windows system. Kelvin decided to use an automated tool to recover the damaged, corrupted, or deleted files.
Which of the following forensic tools can help Kelvin in recovering deleted files?

 Ophcrack

 Cain & Abel

 R-Studio

 Rohos Mini Drive

In Windows forensics, recovering deleted or corrupted files typically requires afile-system aware data recovery toolthat can interpret NTFS/FAT metadata and scan disk structures for lost file records and residual content.R-Studiois designed specifically for data recovery: it can locate and rebuild deleted files by analyzing file system metadata (such as NTFS MFT entries and directory records), recover data from formatted or damaged partitions, and perform raw “signature-based” scans to carve files when metadata is missing. This aligns directly with Kelvin’s need for an automated method to restoredamaged, corrupted, or deletedfiles from a Windows system.
The other options do not match the stated recovery objective.OphcrackandCain & Abelare password recovery
/auditing tools used to obtain credentials (e.g., cracking hashes), not to restore deleted files.Rohos Mini Driveis primarily an encryption/secure storage utility for creating encrypted containers, which may protect data but does not function as a forensic recovery tool for deleted or corrupted files. Therefore, among the listed tools,R-Studio (C)is the correct choice for automated recovery of deleted files in a Windows forensic investigation.

Q48. A government organization decided to establish a computer forensics lab to perform transparent investigation processes on highly sensitive cases. The organization also decided to establish strong physical security around the premises of the forensics lab.
Which of the following security measures helps the organization in providing strong physical security to the forensics lab?

 Never place fire extinguishers in and outside the lab

 Do not maintain a log register at the entrance of the lab

 Shield workstations from transmitting electromagnetic signals

 Never keep the lab under surveillance

Forensics labs handling highly sensitive investigations must protect evidence confidentiality and prevent unauthorized disclosure. Strong physical security includes not only access control and surveillance, but also protections againstelectromagnetic (EM) emanationrisks. Computers and displays can unintentionally emit electromagnetic signals that, under certain conditions, may be intercepted and reconstructed to reveal sensitive information (for example, case notes, recovered evidence content, or credentials). Digital forensics lab design guidance recognizes this as a real threat in high-sensitivity environments and recommendsEM shielding / TEMPEST-style controlswhere appropriate. Shielding workstations reduces the chance of data leakage through side-channel interception and helps ensure that confidential investigative activities cannot be monitored from outside controlled areas.
The other options directly weaken physical security and safety. Fire extinguishers are required for facility safety and risk management, so “never place” them is unsafe and contrary to secure lab standards. Not maintaining an entrance log register undermines chain-of-custody support and accountability by removing a basic access auditing mechanism. “Never keep the lab under surveillance” removes a core deterrent and detection control for unauthorized entry, evidence tampering, and theft. Therefore, shielding workstations from transmitting electromagnetic signals is the only option thatstrengthensphysical security for a sensitive forensics lab.

Q49. Bob, a forensic specialist at a newly established NGO, discovered a security loophole in the NGO’s web application, which unintentionally reveals early enrolled NGO members’ biodata to attackers. Bob immediately employed a content filtering mechanism to protect all the NGO’s data sources and prevent further damage.
Identify the web application threat identified by Bob in the above scenario.

 Buffer overflow

 Information leakage

 Authentication hijacking

 Cookie poisoning

The scenario describes a web application thatunintentionally reveals sensitive member biodatato attackers.
This is a classic case ofinformation leakage, where confidential or private data becomes exposed due to poor access control, improper output handling, verbose error messages, misconfigured endpoints, insecure direct object references, or unintended exposure through pages, APIs, backups, or logs. In forensic and web security documentation, information leakage is defined by theunauthorized disclosure of data, even if the attacker does not alter the system. The key indicator here is that the application is “revealing” biodata-meaning confidentiality is breached.
Bob’s response-using acontent filtering mechanism-also aligns with mitigating data exposure. Content filtering can prevent sensitive fields from being returned, mask personally identifiable information, restrict responses based on user role, and sanitize outputs before they leave the server.
The other options do not match the described impact.Buffer overflowis a low-level memory corruption vulnerability, typically associated with native code execution rather than accidental biodata exposure.
Authentication hijackinginvolves taking over sessions/credentials, andcookie poisoninginvolves manipulating cookie values to gain privileges or alter behavior-neither is explicitly indicated. Therefore, the identified threat isInformation leakage (B).

Q50. Bob, a forensic investigator, is investigating a live Windows system found at a crime scene. In this process, Bob extracted subkeys containing information such as SAM, Security, and software using an automated tool called FTK Imager.
Which of the following Windows Registry hives’ subkeys provide the above information to Bob?

 HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT

 HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE

 HKEY_CURRENT_USER

 HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG

In Windows forensics, the Registry is organized into logical root keys (“hives”) that aggregate configuration and security data. The items named in the question-SAM,SECURITY, andSOFTWARE-aresystem-wide registry hivesstored on disk (typically under the system’s configuration directory) and loaded at runtime underHKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE (HKLM). Investigators rely on these hives because they contain high- value evidence: theSAMhive stores local account database information (including user and group identifiers and credential-related material), theSECURITYhive holds system security policy and LSA-related settings, and theSOFTWAREhive contains installed software, application configuration, and many operating system settings relevant for program execution and persistence analysis.
Tools likeFTK Imagercan extract these hives (or their live-memory representations) during triage to preserve volatile context and enable offline parsing while maintaining evidentiary integrity. The other root keys do not match these specific hives:HKEY_CURRENT_USERis per-user profile data, HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIGreflects current hardware profile, andHKEY_CLASSES_ROOTis primarily file association/COM class mapping (largely derived from HKLM\Software\Classes and HKCU\Software\Classes). Therefore, the correct hive root that provides SAM, SECURITY, and SOFTWARE subkeys isHKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE (B).

Q51. Sandra, a hacker, targeted Johana, a software professional, to steal her banking details. She started sending frequent, random pop-up messages with malicious links to her social media page. Johana accidentally clicked on a link, causing a malicious program to get installed in her system. Subsequently, when Johana attempted to access her banking website, the URL redirected her to a malicious website controlled by Sandra. Johana entered her banking credentials on the fake website, which Sandra then captured.
Identify the type of attack performed by Sandra on Johana.

 Pharming

 Tailgating

 Dumpster diving

 Shoulder surfing

The scenario describes a victim beingredirected from a legitimate banking URL to a fraudulent websitewithout intending to visit it, after malware is installed on the system. This behavior is characteristic ofpharming, an attack in which an adversarycauses redirectionto a malicious destination even when the user types the correct address or clicks a legitimate bookmark. In digital forensics references, pharming is commonly achieved by manipulatingname resolution or routing mechanisms, such as altering the localhosts file, changingDNS server settings, poisoning DNS responses, modifying browser proxy settings, or installing malware that intercepts and rewrites web requests. The key forensic indicator is that the victim’s request for the real domain is transparently diverted to attacker-controlled infrastructure, where credentials are harvested through a convincing spoofed login page.
The other options do not match the redirection-and-fake-site mechanism.Tailgatingis physical access abuse (following someone into a secure area).Dumpster divinginvolves retrieving sensitive information from discarded materials.Shoulder surfingis observing credentials by watching the victim type. Because the essential action here ismalicious redirection to a fake site to steal credentials, the correct answer isPharming (A).

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Related Positions and Possible Paycheck

Your successful completion of the EC-Council 312-50v10 exam leads you to the CEH certification. By adding this certificate to your resume, you can demonstrate to your potential employer that you have the sufficient expertise required to perform a network infrastructure inspection with the owner’s permission to detect possible security vulnerabilities that a hacker could leverage.

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CEH is the baseline exam for the U.S. Department of Defense, which makes it even more credible. It is thorough in all the required phases affecting ethical hacking. This includes reconnaissance, attaining access, enumerating, keeping access, and ensuring that your tracks are well-covered. Commonly, 312-50v10 certification test is available for taking via ECC Exam or Pearson VUE. It is 4 hours long and the candidates will have to answer 125 multiple-choice questions. If you want to get the CEH certificate, you will need to make sure that you get about 60-85% of the answers correctly. Currently, there is a new version of this test, which is 312-50v11. You can check its details on the official website.

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The EC Council Certified Ethical Hacker v10 Exam 312-50v10 Exam certification include only one 312-50v10 certification exam.

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As detailed above, passing the EC-Council 312-39 exam will qualify you for the aforementioned Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) certificate. This is a detailed certification path that emphasizes the skills and concepts needed to build a lasting career through continuous knowledge enhancement and training using the best study materials. This track suits all IT specialists who are keen to contribute to a SOC team and know their stuff in this field. With the rapid expansion of the security landscape, building exceptional SOC teams is becoming every organization’s biggest priority as the focus shifts to actively responding to security incidents instead of simply recognizing them. Thus, getting this certificate will easily turn you into a first-line “soldier” tasked with warning the team members of potential security attacks and mitigating the same if necessary.

Prerequisites

The target candidates for this certification exam include SOC analysts, cybersecurity analysts, network security specialists, network defense analysts, and network security operators, among others. EC-Council 312-39 requires that the learners have at least one year of practical work experience within the domain of Network Security or Network Administration. They must provide proof of work experience when applying for this test. For those individuals who do not possess the required experience, they can make up for this by taking the official course. It can be accessed through the official center at one of the accredited training centers, through the approved academic institution, or the iClass platform.

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The CSA evaluation can be scheduled and taken at designated ECC Exam Centers. It has a seat time of 3 hours and presents a maximum of 100 questions. Like most of the EC-Council exams, candidates are not allowed to take the CSA test unless they meet the age requirement, which is set at 18 years across both genders. Also, it is worth reminding that the vendor has all the rights to revoke your certification if you are involved in exam malpractices or you violate your agreement.

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To better understand the exam content, you need to have a look at the topics that this test covers. Thus, the domains you should study for are the following:

• Web Application Hacking: 16%

  This module evaluates your understanding of web server concepts, webserver attacks, patch management, web server attack tools, security tools, and countermeasures, as well as web app concepts and footprint web infrastructure. You should also know about attack access controls, web app security, attack web app client, and attack authorization schemes. It also covers one’s knowledge of attack shared environments, web API, web shell, and Webhooks. The learners will need to have the skills in analyzing web applications and performing injection attacks as well as know about attack database connectivity and attack app logic flaws. The potential candidates should also understand SQL injection concepts, tools, countermeasures, and methodology as well as evasion techniques.

• Overview of Information Security & Ethical Hacking: 6%

  This topic covers the areas, such as information security standards & laws, information security controls, ethical hacking, hacking, concepts, concepts of the cyber kill chain, as well as information security overview.

• Wireless Network Hacking: 6%

  This objective requires that the students understand wireless concepts, wireless threats, wireless encryption, wireless hacking tools, wireless hacking methodology, wireless security tools, and wireless countermeasures.

• Cloud Computing: 6%

  Here you will gain an understanding of Cloud computing concepts, serverless computing, Cloud security, container technology, Cloud hacking, and Cloud computing threats.

• Cryptography: 6%

  The last area focuses on the applicants’ understanding of cryptography concepts, cryptography tools, encryption algorithms, email encryption, countermeasures, cryptanalysis, disk encryption, and public key infrastructure.

• Reconnaissance Methods: 21%

  This section focuses on the concepts, such as footprinting concepts & methodology, footprinting via search engines, web services, and social networking sites, email & website footprinting, as well as DNS footprinting. It also covers one’s understanding of Whois footprinting, network footprinting, footprinting countermeasures & tools, and footprinting via social engineering. It also includes the concepts in scanning networks and enumerations.

• Mobile Platform, OT Hacking, and IoT: 8%

  For this part, it is important to know about mobile security tools & guidelines, hacking iOS, mobile device management, and hacking Android iOS. It also includes the details of IoT hacking & OT hacking, which includes the concepts, hacking methodology, attacks & countermeasures, and hacking tools. You should also have knowledge of the OT concepts, hacking methodology, attacks, countermeasures, as well as hacking tools.

Domain Overview

Having knowledge of the exam domains makes the exam journey a bit more easy-to-accomplish as the test-taker will be aware of what s/he is going to face on the exam day. The EC-Council 312-50v11 exam, however, is a little brutal at this front as there are nine extensive exam topics with multiple subdomains included. Information Security and Ethical Hacking Overview, Reconnaissance Techniques, System Hacking Phases and Attack Techniques, Network & Perimeter Hacking, Web Application Hacking, Wireless Network Hacking, Mobile Platform, IoT, and OT Hacking, Cloud Computing, and finally, Cryptography are the title of those nine tested scopes. Speaking of subtopics, they are extensive and elaborate concepts like encryption algorithms, cloud computing, OT attacks, serverless computing, container technology, wireless computing, and the like. The complete subdomain details are available in the exam blueprint guide, available on the EC-Council website. Clearly, this exam touches every aspect of ethical hacking and imparts what’s crucial to become an industry asset.

Prerequisites

The potential candidates for this certification test must complete the eligibility requirements before taking it. They must take the official CEH training course before they can attempt the exam. Alternatively, the interested individuals with at least two years of work experience in the domain of information security can complete an eligibility form with proof of their expertise. They are required to submit this form and pay the eligibility application fee of $100 before they can be allowed to register for the test.

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Putting hard-work in acing the EC-Council 312-50v10 test will bring the most benefits for professionals working in job roles like security officers, security professionals, auditors, and site administrators. Appearing for this exam is only possible if the application process is completed triumphantly. Each candidates has to pass through this phase. Additionally, industry experts insinuate taking-up the associated training to make this learning journey a lot more uncomplicated.

Module 6: System Hacking

The domain encompasses the learners’ understanding of the CEH hacking methodology; familiarity with various techniques to access the system; awareness of privilege escalation methods; understanding of various methods to sustain remote access to the system; familiarity with Rootkits different types; awareness of Steganalysis and Steganograpy; familiarity with the methods of concealing evidence of compromise; understanding of system hacking penetration testing.

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